Question #1: A 45 year old man presents to A&E after developing a severe, sudden-onset headache while bending down at work. He has a background of hypertension but nothing else. He describes the headache as the worst he has ever had. He said that it was worst when it started, and mainly affected the back of his head. On examination his GCS is 15/15 and he has no focal neurological signs. What is the most appropriate initial test?

Question #2: What is the mode of inheritance of Friedrich’s ataxia?

Question #3: Which of the following infectious agents is most commonly identified as a trigger of Guillan-Barre Syndrome?

Question #4: Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option for an acute flare of Multiple Sclerosis?

Question #5: Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome is caused by antibodies against which component of the neuromuscular junction?